Comments on: 1 R 0 ER 1 HR http://www.baseball-reference.com/blog/archives/749 This and that about baseball stats. Tue, 16 Jul 2013 17:01:55 +0000 hourly 1 https://wordpress.org/?v=4.6 By: Scott Hebert » Blog Archive » Linking Logs :: 2008-08-26 http://www.baseball-reference.com/blog/archives/749/comment-page-1#comment-5368 Wed, 27 Aug 2008 02:02:57 +0000 http://www.baseball-reference.com/sotd/?p=749#comment-5368 [...] Stat of the Day » 1 R 0 ER 1 HREveryday, I learn something new about baseball. Tremendous. [...]

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By: spartanbill http://www.baseball-reference.com/blog/archives/749/comment-page-1#comment-5345 Sat, 23 Aug 2008 01:38:17 +0000 http://www.baseball-reference.com/sotd/?p=749#comment-5345 An unearned run can be scored without an error. If a catcher muffs a 3rd strike and it is charged with a passed ball, that run will be unearned. If that would have been the 3rd out, all runs that inning will be unearned. (For the team--see Raphy's post regarding subsequent relievers).

Note that this only applies of it is called a passed ball. If the scorer ruled a WP, the run would be earned.

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By: AMusingFool http://www.baseball-reference.com/blog/archives/749/comment-page-1#comment-5344 Fri, 22 Aug 2008 22:49:00 +0000 http://www.baseball-reference.com/sotd/?p=749#comment-5344 I wonder that it happened so often in the late 50's and through the 60's, and yet is pretty rare since then. Just a function of foul ball areas shrinking in newer parks?

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By: Raphy http://www.baseball-reference.com/blog/archives/749/comment-page-1#comment-5341 Fri, 22 Aug 2008 13:47:28 +0000 http://www.baseball-reference.com/sotd/?p=749#comment-5341 zuty - It wouldn't be earned for the team but it would be earned for the pitcher.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Unearned_run
"When pitchers are changed in the middle of an inning, and one or more errors have already occurred, it is possible to have a run charged as earned against a specific pitcher, but unearned to the team. The simplest example is when the defensive team records two outs and makes an error on a play that would have been the third out. A new pitcher comes into the game, and the next batter hits a home run. The runner who reached on the error comes around to score, and his run is unearned to both the prior pitcher and the team. However, the run scored by the batter is counted as earned against the relief pitcher, but unearned to the team (since there should have already been three outs). Had the team not switched pitchers, neither run would be counted as an earned run because that pitcher should have already been out of that inning."

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By: zuty http://www.baseball-reference.com/blog/archives/749/comment-page-1#comment-5339 Fri, 22 Aug 2008 13:29:02 +0000 http://www.baseball-reference.com/sotd/?p=749#comment-5339 Can't this also happen if ANY error occurs extending the inning, thus making late runs in the inning unearned? That is -- let's say that with one out, a player reaches first on an error. The next player pops out, so there are two out. Then there's a pitching change. The new pitcher serves up a two-run homer. Both runs would be unearned, right? And that pitcher would get the 1R/0ER/1HR line...

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By: leatherman http://www.baseball-reference.com/blog/archives/749/comment-page-1#comment-5332 Thu, 21 Aug 2008 12:22:07 +0000 http://www.baseball-reference.com/sotd/?p=749#comment-5332 As a sidenote, Bob Duliba was the only one of the 39 to only face one batter.

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